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L.9 · ADVANCED · 5 MIN

Unlevered/Re-Levered Beta Walk: The Full Mechanics

The CAPM cost-of-equity formula needs an equity beta as an input. For a public company, you can pull the observed equity beta from a regression of its stock returns on the index. For a private company — or for a public company whose CURRENT capital structure differs from the TARGET capital structure you are projecting in the model — you need a re-levered beta: unlever each peer's observed equity beta to isolate business risk, average the asset betas, then re-lever at your target capital structure. The walk sounds mechanical but is one of the highest-leverage discretionary inputs in any forward DCF, and a sloppy version of it routinely produces WACC errors of 100-200 bps that no downstream check catches.

Quiz · 5 questions ↓
§ 01
StepFormulaWhy This Step Matters
1. Unlever each peerasset_beta = equity_beta / (1 + (1-t) * D/E)Strips out capital-structure noise; what is left is pure business-risk beta
2. Average the asset betasasset_beta_avg = mean across peersBuilds a stable business-risk anchor that does not depend on any single peer's leverage choice
3. Re-lever at target D/Eequity_beta_target = asset_beta_avg (1 + (1-t) (D/E)_target)Adds the financial-risk amplifier appropriate for the FIRM YOU ARE VALUING, not the peers
4. Iterate if D/E changes endogenouslyRecompute WACC -> recompute optimal D/E -> recompute betaAvoids the circularity trap when target D/E itself is a model output
§ 02
Re-Levered Equity Beta = Asset Beta * (1 + (1 - Tax) * D/E)
§ 03

The classic Hamada equation assumes that the debt itself is risk-free (i.e., debt beta = 0), which is fine for investment-grade firms but understates equity beta for LBO-style or distressed targets where debt is genuinely risky. For high-yield-rated targets, use the Modigliani-Miller variant: equity_beta = asset_beta + (asset_beta - debt_beta) (D/E) (1 - t). Pick a debt beta of 0.15-0.25 for BB-rated paper and 0.30-0.50 for B-rated or CCC, sourced from spread-decomposition studies. Practitioners who skip this adjustment systematically under-estimate cost of equity on leveraged targets by 50-150 bps.

§ 04
Pick a public mid-cap industrial in **Fundamentals**. Pull its observed equity beta and its debt-to-equity. Unlever the beta. Then look at two peers in the same sector and unlever their betas the same way. How tight is the cross-sectional asset-beta spread vs the equity-beta spread? The tighter the asset-beta spread, the stronger the evidence that you have a clean comparable group for re-levering at a target capital structure.
§ 05
You are valuing a private healthcare-services company. Three peers have asset betas of 0.62, 0.68, and 0.74 (already unlevered). You target a 25% debt / 75% equity capital structure (D/E = 0.333). The 25% tax rate applies. What re-levered equity beta do you carry into the cost-of-equity calculation, and what is the sensitivity of WACC to a target D/E choice of 35% vs 25%?
§ 06

When the target capital structure is itself a model output — for example, in an LBO model where projected leverage falls as debt is paid down each year — the re-levered beta should change YEAR BY YEAR alongside the changing D/E. This is the iterative-WACC problem: the discount rate depends on capital structure, capital structure depends on projected free cash flow, free cash flow depends on the discount rate via DCF math. Practitioners typically resolve this with either (a) a fixed long-run target D/E held constant across the forecast period (simplest, defensible for a steady-state company), or (b) a year-by-year WACC schedule that re-levers beta against the projected D/E in each forecast year (most rigorous for an LBO or a recapitalization). Method (a) is mathematically wrong but practically OK for mature businesses; method (b) is correct but adds modeling complexity and surfaces the circularity (since changing WACC changes projected FCF, which changes the year-by-year D/E, which changes WACC). Most institutional models settle this by either explicitly using APV (which sidesteps the WACC circularity entirely) or by accepting the small error from method (a).

§ 07
An LBO model projects total debt falls from $800M at entry to $200M at exit over five years, while equity value grows from $400M to $1.6B. The target D/E falls from 2.0 at entry to 0.125 at exit. What is the most disciplined treatment of the WACC discount-rate schedule across the forecast period?
§ 08

Going Deeper — three traps in the unlever / re-lever walk that bite at the senior-analyst level. (1) Tax-rate consistency: if any peer is in a different tax jurisdiction or carries large NOLs, its effective tax rate is not the same as the statutory rate the formula assumes. Either normalize each peer to the same statutory rate before unlevering or use each peer's effective rate explicitly. (2) Operating leases: post-ASC 842 (effective 2019), operating leases sit on the balance sheet as right-of-use assets / lease liabilities. Some practitioners include lease liabilities in the D/E used for unlevering (treating them as quasi-debt); others do not. The convention matters and must be applied consistently across all peers. (3) Negative net debt: tech firms with large cash piles can have NEGATIVE net debt at the moment of observation, which makes the unlever formula produce an equity beta LOWER than the asset beta — mathematically defensible but practically odd. Most analysts floor net debt at zero for the unlever step on cash-rich firms, on the argument that excess cash is sitting in Treasuries and is not a financing source supporting the operating business. AI prompt: 'For this ticker, pull the observed equity beta, the effective tax rate, the D/E ratio, and the lease-liability balance. Walk me through the unlever step and tell me what asset beta this firm contributes to a peer-set average.'

Five questions · AI feedback

Sit with the ideas.

You are valuing a private specialty-foods company with a target capital structure of 30% debt / 70% equity. Three public comps have observed equity betas of 1.20, 0.95, and 1.40, with current debt-to-equity ratios of 0.45, 0.10, and 0.80 respectively. Assume a 25% marginal tax rate on all firms. Walk through the unlever-then-re-lever step. What re-levered equity beta should you carry into the cost-of-equity calculation, and what is the load-bearing reason you cannot simply average the three observed equity betas?

Why:
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